An Emergency Medicine Broadsheet
·Phoenix·
Est. MMXXVI
Blue Fish Med · Today's Topic
Cerebral Venous Thrombosis
CVT is an uncommon but treatable cause of headache, seizure, focal deficit, papilledema, and intracranial hemorrhage. Delay in venous imaging or anticoagulation can convert a reversible venous outflow problem into infarction, herniation, or death.
Also known ascerebral venous sinus thrombosis · CVST · dural sinus thrombosis
A 29-year-old woman sits forward on the stretcher, pressing both hands against a headache that began as a dull pressure three days ago and now pulses behind her eyes. She has vomited twice and says the room briefly went gray when she stood up. Her husband reports one brief episode of “staring and shaking” this morning; she is now awake but slow to answer. The CT images are loading, and the next decision has not yet been made.
— What’s your move? Read on.
Before you read
What imaging study confirms the diagnosis?
When should anticoagulation begin—even if intracranial blood is present?
When to Think of It
Think CVT with a new progressive or thunderclap headache, papilledema, seizure, unexplained intracranial hemorrhage, focal deficit that does not fit an arterial territory, encephalopathy, or headache plus a prothrombotic state: pregnancy/postpartum, estrogen exposure, malignancy, infection, inflammatory disease, dehydration, or inherited thrombophilia.
Sick or Not Sick
Sick versus not sick hinges on neurologic threat: altered mental status, recurrent seizures, declining consciousness, focal deficit, large venous infarct/hemorrhage, or signs of herniation. The key call is whether the patient needs immediate airway/seizure/ICP support and neurocritical-care involvement while confirmatory venous imaging is obtained.
The First Fifteen Minutes
ABCs, glucose, cardiac monitor, two IVs, focused neurologic examination, pregnancy test, CBC/platelets, CMP, PT/INR, aPTT, and type and screen.
If actively seizing or seizure lasts ≥5 minutes → lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV, usual adult maximum 4 mg per dose; may repeat once, because benzodiazepines rapidly terminate cortical electrical activity. If no IV access → midazolam 10 mg IM. Dose limits vary; verify institutional seizure protocol.
If ongoing seizure after benzodiazepine → levetiracetam 60 mg/kg IV, maximum 4,500 mg (common ED loading dose; check local protocol), because it suppresses recurrent neuronal firing with few interactions.
If markedly hypertensive with suspected intracranial hypertension → treat cautiously; nicardipine 5 mg/h IV infusion, increase by 2.5 mg/h every 5–15 minutes, maximum 15 mg/h, because controlled reduction limits further pressure injury without abruptly reducing cerebral perfusion. Avoid reflexive normalization.
If impending herniation or severe deterioration → 3% hypertonic saline 2–3 mL/kg IV bolus (institutional protocols vary) or mannitol 0.5–1 g/kg IV if hemodynamically and renally appropriate, because osmotic therapy lowers brain water. Check sodium, osmolality, renal function, and local neurocritical-care protocol.
Once CVT is confirmed—or strongly suspected after venous imaging—and there is no absolute contraindication → start therapeutic anticoagulation: enoxaparin 1 mg/kg SC every 12 hours or unfractionated heparin 80 units/kg IV bolus followed by 18 units/kg/h infusion, because anticoagulation prevents thrombus propagation and new venous infarction. Intracranial hemorrhage from CVT is not, by itself, a reason to withhold anticoagulation; coordinate with neurology/neurosurgery.
Definitive Care & Disposition
Obtain MRI brain with MR venography or CT venography; a normal noncontrast CT or D-dimer does not exclude CVT. Admit confirmed CVT to a monitored bed; ICU for coma, mass effect, recurrent seizures, hydrocephalus, or herniation risk. Continue heparin/LMWH, then transition to an oral anticoagulant when stable; typical treatment is at least 3–6 months, longer for persistent thrombophilia or recurrent thrombosis. Treat provoking infection, stop estrogen exposure, involve hematology for selected thrombophilia evaluation, and reserve catheter-directed thrombolysis or thrombectomy for deterioration despite anticoagulation in an experienced center.
How This One Kills
The dangerous error is dismissing a progressive headache as migraine after a normal noncontrast CT. Venous infarction and hemorrhage may develop while the patient is still conversational; waiting for papilledema, paralysis, or coma forfeits the window for anticoagulation and neurocritical-care intervention.
The Differential — What Else Looks Like This
Migraine — stereotyped prior episodes with normal neurologic examination and no progressive course; confusing it with CVT delays venous imaging.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage — abrupt maximal-at-onset headache with meningeal features; confusing it with CVT may lead to incomplete venous evaluation after a negative initial CT.
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension — papilledema and headache, but usually no focal deficit, seizure, or venous infarct; confusing the two misses anticoagulation.
Arterial ischemic stroke — deficit in a recognizable arterial territory; treating CVT as arterial stroke alone misses the need for anticoagulation and venous imaging.
The Second-Day Story
Older adults, postpartum patients, and partially treated patients may present only with fatigue, confusion, isolated nausea, or a slowly progressive headache. Anticoagulation, analgesics, or seizures can blur the examination, and papilledema may be absent early. The combination of a new persistent headache plus any seizure, visual symptom, focal sign, or prothrombotic exposure should lower the threshold for CT venography or MR venography.
Back to Our Patient
Back to the 29-year-old woman: her progressive headache, visual obscurations, seizure, and estrogen exposure trigger recognition of CVT, while her postictal slowing and seizure make her neurologically high risk. CT venography shows superior sagittal sinus thrombosis with a small hemorrhagic venous infarct; after seizure control and airway reassessment, therapeutic anticoagulation is started despite the hemorrhagic component because the blood resulted from venous congestion. She is admitted to the neuro-ICU for serial examinations, seizure monitoring, and intracranial-pressure surveillance, with later transition to outpatient anticoagulation.
Patient Presentation to Attending
How you’d present this patient on the floor — tight, pertinent positives and negatives, no rambling
“This is a 29-year-old woman with three days of progressive pressure-like headache, vomiting, transient visual dimming, and a witnessed brief seizure, now awake but postictal and slow to respond. She uses an estrogen-containing contraceptive and has no prior migraine history, fever, neck stiffness, trauma, or persistent focal deficit. She is protecting her airway, but has mild bilateral papilledema and a GCS of 14. Noncontrast CT shows a small parasagittal hemorrhagic lesion, and CT venography demonstrates superior sagittal sinus thrombosis. My assessment is high-risk cerebral venous thrombosis with venous infarction and seizure; I’ll continue neurologic and airway monitoring, treat recurrent seizure with benzodiazepine followed by levetiracetam, start therapeutic heparin after neurology discussion, and admit her to the neuro-ICU.”
Study Directive
Draw the venous drainage system and label the superior sagittal, transverse, sigmoid, straight, and cavernous sinuses from memory.
Practice a 60-second CVT risk-factor and red-flag history on three headache cases.
Compare CT venography, MR venography, and noncontrast CT in a short written algorithm.
Memorize therapeutic enoxaparin and UFH dosing, then verify them in your institutional anticoagulation protocol.
Review one neurocritical-care case involving CVT with hemorrhagic venous infarction and state why anticoagulation was still used.
Use this AHA scientific statement for current guidance on recognizing CVT, selecting CT/MR venography, initiating anticoagulation even with venous hemorrhage, and identifying patients who may need escalation of care.
MS is a chronic inflammatory demyelinating disease in which early recognition prevents missed alternative diagnoses and enables disease-modifying treatment....
A 27-year-old woman notices that the vision in her right eye has become washed out over four days, and colors on her phone look “rusty.” She has pain when looking left and says her right leg has felt clumsy for several months, though it improved before she sought care. Examination reveals reduced right visual acuity, a relative afferent pupillary defect, and subtle spasticity. The question is whether this is one isolated event or evidence of a disease separated in time and space.
Before You Read
Which findings distinguish an MS relapse from a dangerous mimic?
When are steroids indicated, and what must be excluded first?
How are dissemination in time and space demonstrated?
Why It Matters
MS is a chronic inflammatory demyelinating disease in which early recognition prevents missed alternative diagnoses and enables disease-modifying treatment. In the ED, the crucial task is not to label every neurologic symptom as relapse but to identify optic neuritis, myelitis, brainstem disease, and mimics requiring urgent action.
When to Think of It
Consider MS in a young adult with episodes of neurologic dysfunction separated in time and affecting different CNS regions: optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, sensory symptoms, weakness, ataxia, bladder dysfunction, or Lhermitte phenomenon. Symptoms typically evolve over hours to days and last at least 24 hours without fever or metabolic explanation.
Sick or Not Sick
Sick versus not sick is determined by threats outside routine relapse care: airway or bulbar dysfunction, rapidly progressive weakness, severe spinal cord syndrome, altered mental status, fever/infection, or a first demyelinating event with an alternative diagnosis still plausible. The key call is whether this is a routine outpatient relapse evaluation or an admission/MRI-now problem.
The First Fifteen Minutes
Check glucose, temperature, pregnancy status when relevant, medication history, baseline function, and a focused neurologic examination including visual acuity, color vision, pupils, ocular motility, strength, reflexes, sensation, gait, and bladder function.
If hypoxemia or respiratory weakness → oxygen titrated to adequate saturation and urgent respiratory mechanics; if neuromuscular ventilatory failure develops, involve ICU/anesthesia early.
If a disabling relapse is strongly suspected after infection and vascular mimics are considered → methylprednisolone 1,000 mg IV daily for 3–5 days, because high-dose glucocorticoid suppresses inflammatory demyelination and shortens relapse duration. Regimen varies by severity and specialty protocol; verify with neurology.
If severe agitation, psychosis, or steroid-induced insomnia occurs → use supportive measures first; medication choice is individualized, and avoid sedatives that obscure a changing neurologic examination unless necessary.
Do not administer steroids for unexplained neurologic deficits before excluding infection when fever, meningismus, immunosuppression, or spinal infection is possible; steroids can worsen occult infection.
Definitive Care & Disposition
MRI brain and cervical/thoracic spine with and without gadolinium is the usual diagnostic study, guided by symptoms. CSF oligoclonal bands or kappa free light chains may support diagnosis when MRI does not establish dissemination; a normal MRI does not end evaluation if suspicion remains high. Admit for severe myelitis, inability to walk, urinary retention, rapidly progressive symptoms, poor support, or diagnostic uncertainty; otherwise arrange urgent neurology follow-up. Disease-modifying therapy is specialist-directed; plasma exchange is considered for severe steroid-refractory relapse, particularly disabling myelitis or optic neuritis.
How This One Kills
The critical failure is calling fever-associated weakness or a first severe spinal syndrome an “MS flare” and giving steroids without excluding infection, compressive disease, or vascular pathology. The result may be delayed surgery or uncontrolled infection while neurologic injury becomes permanent.
The Atypical Presentation
Older adults, men, and patients with prior neurologic disease may present with vague fatigue, imbalance, urinary urgency, cognitive slowing, or heat-related worsening rather than a classic relapse. Symptoms can fluctuate with fever or exertion without new inflammation, and chronic deficits may be mistaken for progression. Establish the time course, objective change from baseline, infection/metabolic triggers, and whether the deficit localizes to CNS white matter.
Back to Our Patient
Back to the 27-year-old woman: painful monocular visual loss, dyschromatopsia, RAPD, and a prior self-limited leg episode establish a high suspicion for optic neuritis with dissemination in time and space, while the absence of fever, meningismus, severe back pain, or abrupt maximal deficit makes infection and stroke less likely. MRI shows an enhancing right optic-nerve lesion and older periventricular lesions, supporting MS. Because vision loss is functionally significant, neurology recommends IV methylprednisolone; she remains neurologically stable, is discharged with expedited MS-clinic follow-up and a plan for disease-modifying therapy.
Patient Presentation to Attending
“This is a 27-year-old woman with four days of painful right monocular visual loss and impaired color vision, plus a prior episode of self-resolving right-leg clumsiness several months ago. She has no fever, headache, eye redness, trauma, or abrupt maximal-onset deficit. Examination shows reduced right acuity, a right RAPD, dyschromatopsia, and mild right-leg spasticity without respiratory or bulbar weakness. My assessment is a likely first clinically significant MS presentation with optic neuritis and a prior disseminated episode; I’ll obtain MRI brain and orbits with contrast, screen for infection and key mimics, involve neurology, and give high-dose IV methylprednisolone if imaging and examination support a disabling relapse.”
Study Directive
Draw the McDonald diagnostic logic: dissemination in space, dissemination in time, and exclusion of better explanations.
Perform and document a complete optic-neuritis examination on a partner or simulated case.
Build a differential for acute myelopathy and list the red flags requiring emergent MRI.
Review MRI examples of periventricular, juxtacortical, infratentorial, and spinal lesions.
Memorize the standard IV methylprednisolone relapse regimen and identify three situations in which steroids should be delayed pending evaluation.
Key Medications
Methylprednisolone: 1,000 mg IV daily for 3–5 days for a disabling acute relapse; regimen varies—check neurology protocol or Lexicomp/UpToDate.
Oral high-dose prednisone regimens are sometimes used for selected relapses but should not be substituted casually; confirm local protocol.
If steroid-associated hyperglycemia becomes clinically significant, use institution-specific insulin protocol rather than an improvised fixed dose.
Pediatric demyelinating attacks require specialist-directed weight-based steroid dosing; adult dosing should not be copied.
Disease-modifying therapies are not ED medications and should be initiated or changed by neurology.
High-Yield Pearls
A relapse requires new or worsening neurologic dysfunction lasting at least 24 hours without fever or another systemic trigger.
Heat-related transient worsening suggests Uhthoff phenomenon, not necessarily new inflammatory activity.
Severe longitudinally extensive myelitis or bilateral optic neuritis should prompt testing for NMOSD/MOG-associated disease rather than reflexively labeling it MS.
The Mimics
Optic neuritis from MOG-associated disease or NMOSD — severe bilateral or posterior optic involvement, chiasmal/spinal features; confusing them alters long-term therapy and relapse prevention.
Spinal cord compression/epidural abscess — back pain, fever, focal tenderness, or a sensory level with rapid progression; steroids can delay decompression and worsen infection.
Guillain-Barré syndrome — progressive symmetric peripheral weakness with areflexia and no sensory level; confusing it with MS risks missed respiratory failure.
Functional neurologic disorder — internally inconsistent findings with preserved reflex patterns; premature attribution can miss organic disease, while premature dismissal harms care.
Board Question
A 25-year-old woman has painful monocular visual loss evolving over 5 days. Examination shows a relative afferent pupillary defect and reduced color vision. Which finding most strongly supports optic neuritis associated with MS?
APain with eye movement and an enhancing periventricular lesion on MRI
BPurulent conjunctival discharge and corneal opacity
CSudden painless monocular blindness with a cherry-red spot
DBilateral papilledema with normal visual acuity
Reveal answer
Correct: A
Painful subacute monocular visual loss with dyschromatopsia and an enhancing periventricular lesion supports optic neuritis in the setting of CNS dissemination. The other options describe ocular infection, central retinal artery occlusion, and raised intracranial pressure, respectively.
A current overview of MS diagnosis and management can help emergency clinicians distinguish true relapse from pseudo-relapse and understand when acute corticosteroid treatment and neurologic consultation are appropriate.
Spinal epidural abscess is a time-critical infection in which neurologic outcome depends on rapid recognition, antibiotics, and surgical source control. The...
Also known asSEA · epidural abscess · spinal abscess
A 61-year-old man with diabetes rubs his lower back against the stretcher and says the pain has been keeping him awake for a week. His temperature is 38.4°C, his sweatshirt is damp, and he now needs the wall to walk to the bathroom. He denies a fall but mentions that his legs feel “heavy,” and the nurse notices he hesitates before answering about urination. The MRI scanner is occupied, and the next move has not yet been made.
Before You Read
Which combination of back pain, infection risk, and neurologic change demands immediate action?
What empiric antibiotics cover the dangerous organisms?
When is MRI required even if the neurologic examination is initially normal?
Why It Matters
Spinal epidural abscess is a time-critical infection in which neurologic outcome depends on rapid recognition, antibiotics, and surgical source control. The classic triad is often incomplete; waiting for paralysis or the full triad is a preventable diagnostic failure.
When to Think of It
Enter SEA with severe or progressive back/neck pain plus fever, spinal tenderness, radicular pain, weakness, sensory level, gait change, urinary retention/incontinence, or bowel dysfunction. Risk rises with diabetes, injection drug use, bacteremia, skin infection, endocarditis, immunosuppression, recent spinal procedure, indwelling vascular access, and S. aureus colonization.
Sick or Not Sick
Sick versus not sick forks at neurologic compromise or sepsis. The most important call is whether there is evolving cord/cauda equina dysfunction—weakness, sensory level, saddle anesthesia, abnormal reflexes, or urinary retention—which requires emergent MRI and immediate spine-surgery consultation.
The First Fifteen Minutes
ABCs, glucose, sepsis assessment, two IVs, blood cultures from separate sites, CBC, CMP, lactate, ESR/CRP, coagulation studies, urinalysis, and postvoid residual when retention is possible. Do not delay antibiotics for cultures if obtaining them causes meaningful delay.
If shock or hypoperfusion → balanced crystalloid 30 mL/kg IV for severe sepsis-induced hypoperfusion, with reassessment for overload, because restoring preload improves tissue perfusion. Use smaller aliquots in heart or renal failure.
If hypotension persists after fluids → norepinephrine 0.05–0.1 mcg/kg/min IV infusion, titrated to MAP ≥65 mm Hg, because α-adrenergic vasoconstriction restores perfusion pressure. Central access is preferred, but peripheral initiation is appropriate while obtaining it.
If SEA is suspected with systemic illness, neurologic deficit, or imaging delay → vancomycin 20–25 mg/kg IV loading dose plus ceftriaxone 2 g IV or cefepime 2 g IV, because this covers MRSA and common gram-negative pathogens. Select cefepime for healthcare exposure, severe sepsis, or concern for Pseudomonas; dosing requires renal adjustment and local antibiogram review.
If immediate surgery is likely and anaerobic/polymicrobial infection is plausible → metronidazole 500 mg IV every 8 hours may be added, because it covers anaerobes; routine uncomplicated hematogenous SEA does not always require it.
Avoid empiric steroids unless directed by spine surgery/neurosurgery for a specific indication; they can obscure progression and worsen infection.
Definitive Care & Disposition
MRI of the entire symptomatic spinal region with and without contrast is preferred; image the whole spine if symptoms are multifocal, bacteremia is present, or the level is unclear. Obtain urgent spine surgery and infectious-disease consultation. Neurologic deficit, cord compression, large abscess, instability, persistent bacteremia, or failure of medical therapy usually requires surgical decompression and drainage plus prolonged culture-directed antibiotics, commonly 6 weeks or longer. Stable patients without neurologic deficit may occasionally receive carefully monitored medical therapy, but require admission—not discharge.
How This One Kills
The lethal miss is anchoring on mechanical back pain or a normal early neurologic examination. Epidural infection can compress the cord abruptly after a deceptively quiet prodrome; delayed MRI and decompression can turn ambulatory weakness into irreversible paraplegia.
The Atypical Presentation
Elderly, immunocompromised, and partially treated patients may be afebrile, have normal white-cell counts, or report only worsening function, malaise, or atraumatic back pain. Diabetes and opioid use may obscure the history, and early weakness may be subtle—slow gait, difficulty rising, or new urinary hesitancy. A persistent focal back pain syndrome plus elevated ESR/CRP or bacteremia should prompt MRI even without the classic triad.
Back to Our Patient
Back to the 61-year-old man: fever, diabetes, progressive focal back pain, gait change, and urinary hesitancy make SEA an emergency, and the possible cord/cauda equina dysfunction places him in the high-risk branch. Blood cultures are drawn, broad MRSA and gram-negative coverage begins, and MRI demonstrates a lumbar epidural collection with compression. Spine surgery performs urgent decompression and drainage; cultures grow methicillin-sensitive S. aureus, antibiotics are narrowed, and he is admitted for prolonged therapy and neurologic rehabilitation.
Patient Presentation to Attending
“This is a 61-year-old man with diabetes and one week of worsening atraumatic low-back pain, fever, new gait difficulty, and urinary hesitancy. He has no trauma or prior similar episodes, but he has focal lumbar tenderness, temperature 38.4°C, mild bilateral leg weakness, and a postvoid residual of 450 mL; there is no clear saddle anesthesia yet. His inflammatory markers and lactate are elevated, and blood cultures are pending. My assessment is spinal epidural abscess with evolving cauda equina or cord compression; I’ll obtain emergent contrast MRI, start vancomycin plus cefepime after cultures without delaying therapy, monitor for sepsis, and call spine surgery now for likely decompression.”
Study Directive
Memorize the SEA risk factors and recite them during every atraumatic back-pain evaluation.
Practice a focused cord/cauda equina examination: gait, strength, reflexes, sensory level, perineal sensation, and bladder function.
Create an empiric antibiotic plan for community-acquired versus healthcare-associated SEA and verify renal adjustments.
Review three MRI examples and identify epidural abscess, discitis, vertebral osteomyelitis, and cord compression.
Simulate a two-minute call to spine surgery that includes neurologic trajectory, MRI findings, cultures, antibiotics, and hemodynamics.
Key Medications
Vancomycin: 20–25 mg/kg IV loading dose, then pharmacy/AUC-guided maintenance; dosing varies substantially with renal function—check institutional protocol, Lexicomp, or UpToDate.
Ceftriaxone: 2 g IV every 24 hours; adjust strategy for severe infection and local resistance patterns.
Cefepime: 2 g IV every 8 hours for severe infection; renal adjustment is essential.
Metronidazole: 500 mg IV every 8 hours when anaerobic coverage is indicated.
Balanced crystalloid: 30 mL/kg IV for sepsis-induced hypoperfusion, with frequent reassessment.
Norepinephrine: 0.05–0.1 mcg/kg/min IV, titrate to perfusion target.
Pediatric SEA requires weight-based antibiotic dosing and early pediatric spine/infectious-disease consultation; adult doses do not apply.
High-Yield Pearls
ESR/CRP are useful rule-out aids when low, but normal WBC count or absent fever does not exclude SEA.
Urinary hesitancy may be the first sign of evolving cord or cauda equina compression; ask directly and measure a postvoid residual.
MRI level selection should follow symptoms, but bacteremia or multifocal symptoms should lower the threshold for whole-spine imaging.
The Mimics
Pyelonephritis — flank pain and urinary symptoms without a spinal sensory level or focal cord findings; confusion delays MRI and source control.
Discitis/vertebral osteomyelitis — similar pain and inflammatory markers but no epidural compression; treating without assessing the epidural space misses neurologic catastrophe.
Cauda equina syndrome from disc herniation — acute saddle anesthesia and retention, usually without fever or bacteremia; antibiotics may be delayed if infection is not considered.
Psoas abscess — hip-flexion pain and abdominal/flank symptoms; confusing the source can miss concurrent spinal spread.
Board Question
A 58-year-old man with diabetes presents with fever, severe midline back pain, and new bilateral leg weakness. MRI shows a posterior epidural collection compressing the thoracic cord. What is the most appropriate next step?
ADischarge with oral analgesics and outpatient MRI
BLumbar puncture before antibiotics
CImmediate broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and emergent surgical consultation
DHigh-dose corticosteroids as sole therapy
Reveal answer
Correct: C
Neurologic deficit with a compressive epidural abscess requires immediate antimicrobial therapy and urgent surgical evaluation for decompression and drainage. Lumbar puncture is unsafe and low yield in a compressive spinal infection, and steroids alone worsen the underlying problem.
A current, authoritative guide to recognizing spinal epidural abscess despite its often nonspecific presentation and expediting MRI, antibiotics, and surgical consultation before neurologic deterioration.
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Cerebral Venous Thrombosis
CVT is an uncommon but treatable cause of headache, seizure, focal deficit, papilledema, and intracranial hemorrhage. Delay in venous imaging or...
Also known ascerebral venous sinus thrombosis · CVST · dural sinus thrombosis
A 29-year-old woman sits forward on the stretcher, pressing both hands against a headache that began as a dull pressure three days ago and now pulses behind her eyes. She has vomited twice and says the room briefly went gray when she stood up. Her husband reports one brief episode of “staring and shaking” this morning; she is now awake but slow to answer. The CT images are loading, and the next decision has not yet been made.
Before You Read
Which headache features should make venous thrombosis rise above migraine?
What imaging study confirms the diagnosis?
When should anticoagulation begin—even if intracranial blood is present?
Why It Matters
CVT is an uncommon but treatable cause of headache, seizure, focal deficit, papilledema, and intracranial hemorrhage. Delay in venous imaging or anticoagulation can convert a reversible venous outflow problem into infarction, herniation, or death.
When to Think of It
Think CVT with a new progressive or thunderclap headache, papilledema, seizure, unexplained intracranial hemorrhage, focal deficit that does not fit an arterial territory, encephalopathy, or headache plus pregnancy/postpartum state, estrogen exposure, malignancy, inflammatory disease, dehydration, infection, or thrombophilia.
Sick or Not Sick
Sick versus not sick hinges on altered mental status, recurrent seizures, declining consciousness, focal deficit, large venous infarct/hemorrhage, or herniation signs. The key call is whether immediate airway, seizure, and intracranial-pressure support are needed while venous imaging is obtained.
The First Fifteen Minutes
ABCs, glucose, monitor, IV access, focused neurologic examination, pregnancy test, CBC/platelets, CMP, PT/INR, aPTT, and type and screen.
Ongoing seizure ≥5 minutes → lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV, maximum 4 mg/dose; repeat once, because benzodiazepines terminate seizure activity. Without IV access → midazolam 10 mg IM.
Seizure continuing after benzodiazepine → levetiracetam 60 mg/kg IV, maximum 4,500 mg, because it reduces recurrent neuronal firing; verify local protocol and renal adjustment.
Impending herniation → 3% hypertonic saline 2–3 mL/kg IV bolus or mannitol 0.5–1 g/kg IV if appropriate, because osmotic therapy reduces cerebral edema. Check local neurocritical-care protocol.
Confirmed or strongly suspected CVT → enoxaparin 1 mg/kg SC every 12 hours or UFH 80 units/kg IV bolus then 18 units/kg/h infusion, because anticoagulation prevents propagation. CVT-associated intracranial hemorrhage alone is not a contraindication.
Definitive Care & Disposition
Confirm with CT venography or MRI/MR venography; noncontrast CT alone is insufficient. Admit to a monitored bed, ICU for depressed consciousness, mass effect, recurrent seizures, or herniation risk. Continue anticoagulation, transition to an oral agent when stable, and treat provoking infection or thrombophilia. Consider endovascular therapy only for deterioration despite anticoagulation in an experienced center.
How This One Kills
A normal CT and a headache label can hide progressive venous infarction. The patient may deteriorate suddenly after days of seemingly benign symptoms, and delayed anticoagulation is the specific preventable failure.
The Atypical Presentation
Older or partially treated patients may have only progressive fatigue, confusion, nausea, or vague headache. Papilledema may be absent early, and analgesics or anticonvulsants can blunt the examination. A new persistent headache with any seizure, visual symptom, focal sign, or prothrombotic exposure merits venous imaging.
Back to Our Patient
Back to the 29-year-old woman: her progressive headache, visual obscurations, seizure, and estrogen exposure make CVT the leading diagnosis, and her postictal state makes her high risk. CT venography confirms superior sagittal sinus thrombosis with a small hemorrhagic venous infarct. After seizure treatment and airway reassessment, therapeutic anticoagulation begins despite the hemorrhagic component, and she is admitted to the neuro-ICU for serial examinations and intracranial-pressure monitoring.
Patient Presentation to Attending
“This is a 29-year-old woman with three days of progressive headache, vomiting, transient visual dimming, and a witnessed seizure, now awake but slow to respond. She uses estrogen-containing contraception and has no fever, neck stiffness, trauma, or prior migraine pattern. She has mild papilledema and a GCS of 14; CT shows a small parasagittal hemorrhagic lesion, and CT venography confirms superior sagittal sinus thrombosis. I’m concerned for high-risk CVT with hemorrhagic venous infarction and seizure; I’ll continue neuro/airway monitoring, treat recurrent seizures, start therapeutic heparin after neurology discussion, and admit her to the neuro-ICU.”
Study Directive
Recite three CVT presentations and three provoking conditions without notes.
Practice choosing CT venography versus MR venography for five sample cases.
Write the anticoagulation plan, including renal considerations and monitoring.
Review one case of CVT-associated hemorrhage and explain why anticoagulation was appropriate.
Perform a timed neurologic-threat assessment: airway, seizure, consciousness, focal deficit, and herniation.
Key Medications
Enoxaparin: 1 mg/kg SC every 12 hours; renal adjustment required.
UFH: 80 units/kg IV bolus then 18 units/kg/h infusion, titrated by protocol.
Lorazepam: 0.1 mg/kg IV, maximum 4 mg/dose; repeat once.
Midazolam: 10 mg IM without IV access.
Levetiracetam: 60 mg/kg IV, maximum 4,500 mg; renal adjustment applies.
Hypertonic saline/mannitol dosing varies by protocol; verify with Lexicomp, UpToDate, or institutional guidance.
High-Yield Pearls
“Hemorrhagic stroke” in an atypical location should prompt consideration of venous thrombosis.
D-dimer cannot safely rule out CVT in isolated, subacute, or low-burden headache presentations.
Seizure plus headache is a venous red flag, particularly postpartum or with estrogen exposure.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage — thunderclap headache with meningeal signs; confusion can lead to incomplete evaluation after a negative CT.
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension — papilledema without seizure, focal deficit, or venous infarct; confusion misses anticoagulation.
Arterial stroke — deficit in an arterial territory; confusion misses venous imaging and anticoagulation.
Board Question
A patient with confirmed CVT has a small hemorrhagic venous infarct but no contraindication to anticoagulation. What is the best treatment?
AAspirin
BTherapeutic anticoagulation
CLumbar puncture
DObservation until hemorrhage resolves
Reveal answer
Correct: B
Anticoagulation is recommended even when CVT causes intracranial hemorrhage because the mechanism is venous thrombosis with propagation and congestion. Observation allows the thrombus and venous hypertension to worsen.
Use this AHA scientific statement for current guidance on recognizing CVT, selecting CT/MR venography, initiating anticoagulation even with venous hemorrhage, and identifying patients who may need escalation of care.
A quick test of recall from prior editions. Commit to an answer before you check.
From yesterday's edition
A toddler is brought in by worried parents after a brief unexplained spell. The child is now playful and well-perfused, with vitals that look reasonable for age. What’s the diagnosis, and the first move?
Check your answer
Pediatric ECG Interpretation. Before acting on a pediatric ECG, verify pediatric lead placement, read it stepwise against age-specific norms, and if it is genuinely abnormal, work the differential the source names — arrhythmia, pericarditis or myocarditis, and electrolyte disturbance.
From the August 12 edition
Today, three days ago: Adenosine. What’s the adult ED dose, and the contraindication you’d most regret missing?
Check your answer
6 mg rapid IV push followed immediately by saline flush; if no conversion, 12 mg rapid IV push, may repeat 12 mg once. Use proximal IV/stopcock technique. Second/third-degree AV block or sick sinus without pacer, asthma/severe bronchospasm caution, irregular/polymorphic wide-complex tachycardia, preexcited AF.
From the August 5 edition
A patient’s G-tube was placed 10 days ago and is accidentally removed. He is hemodynamically stable with a soft abdomen. What is the best next step?
AReplace it blindly with the same-size tube
BInsert a Foley catheter and begin feeds
CConsult GI/interventional radiology for guided replacement
DClose the tract and arrange outpatient replacement
Reveal answer
Correct · C
The tract is immature, and blind replacement risks intraperitoneal placement. A Foley may be used selectively to preserve a mature tract, but it should not be used for feeding through an immature tract.
Journal Watch
From the FOAMed wireExtended window
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Beat burnout in the ED: Learn how the PULSE framework helps emergency physicians drive positive system change from within. The post OPINION: Changemaking as a Prescription for Emergency Medicine appeared first on ACEP Now .
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Facial trauma is common in emergency medicine, but the biggest pitfalls are often not the fractures themselves—they're the threatened airway, vision-threatening ocular injuries, missed septal hematomas, and subtle...
Critical Care Corner
Matched to today’s topics
A critical-care reference from LITFL’s Critical Care Compendium, tied to today’s differential.
CVT’s protean presentation demands a low threshold for venous imaging, while management hinges on anticoagulation even with hemorrhagic venous infarction and rapid control of seizures or intracranial hypertension.
Cerebral venous thrombosis (CVT) refers to thrombus formation in either the deep or superficial venous drainage systems of the brain. The etiology is multifactorial and the presentation is variable, with diagnosis requiring a high index of suspicion
Pharmacology Corner
Two drugs for the shift
One antimicrobial and one other ED workhorse — selected daily, with sources and last-reviewed dates so every dose is cross-checkable.
Antimicrobial of the Day
Linezolid
Oxazolidinone protein synthesis inhibitor
Indication
MRSA pneumonia/SSTI alternatives, VRE infections, and toxin-suppressing gram-positive coverage in selected severe infections when vancomycin is undesirable.
What’s your dose? — reveal dosing & cautions
ED Dose
600 mg IV/PO q12h. PO bioavailability is excellent; IV is not automatically stronger.
Renal Adjustment
No standard renal adjustment, but thrombocytopenia risk may be higher in renal impairment with prolonged courses.
Cardiac arrest special circumstances, severe hyperkalemia with unstable ECG, calcium channel blocker overdose, massive transfusion hypocalcemia, and severe hypocalcemia when central access is available.
What’s your dose? — reveal dosing & cautions
ED Dose
1 g IV of 10% calcium chloride, preferably through central line; may repeat based on ECG/hemodynamics/ionized calcium.
Renal Adjustment
No renal adjustment for emergency use; monitor calcium/phosphate with repeated doses.
Contraindications
Peripheral administration carries tissue necrosis risk with extravasation; caution in digoxin toxicity and hypercalcemia.
Interactions
Incompatible with bicarbonate in same line; ceftriaxone precipitation risk in neonates; digoxin arrhythmia concern.
Monitoring
ECG, ionized calcium, IV site/extravasation, hemodynamic response.
ED Pearl
Calcium chloride gives more elemental calcium than gluconate but is harsher on veins — use it when crashing/central access exists, not casually through a tenuous peripheral IV.
For educational use only. Verify dosing against the FDA label and your institution’s pharmacy resources before administering.
ECG of the Day
Misc
Myocarditis
Sinus tachycardia with nonspecific ST-T changes in a young patient after a viral illness is myocarditis until the ECG or troponin forces you to take it seriously.
The Tracing
A 24-year-old presents with pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea a week after a flu-like illness. Heart rate is 118, and he looks more unwell than a simple viral syndrome should make him. The ECG shows a sinus tachycardia with nonspecific ST segment and T wave changes that don't fit a single coronary territory. In another young patient with the same story, the tracing instead shows widespread concave ST elevation across multiple leads — the pattern of pericardial inflammation. Elsewhere the QRS looks slightly prolonged and the QT stretched, and there are scattered T wave inversions. The rhythm strip catches a run of ventricular ectopy. Nothing on the tracing is diagnostic on its own.
Widespread concave ST elevation when the adjacent pericardium is inflamed (myopericarditis)
Prolonged QRS and QT prolongation
Diffuse T wave inversion, ventricular arrhythmias, and AV conduction defects
Pearls
The ECG in myocarditis is deliberately nondiagnostic — sinus tachycardia plus nonspecific ST-T change is the rule, so the diagnosis is clinical and the tracing mainly flags risk (conduction disease, arrhythmia).
When concave, widespread ST elevation appears, the pericardium is involved too — myopericarditis — which links the picture to the pericarditis pattern rather than a coronary territory.
Though usually a benign disease long-term, in the acute phase it can produce arrhythmias, cardiac failure, cardiogenic shock, and death, so a quiet-looking ECG doesn't equal a safe patient.
Pitfalls
The nonspecific or diffusely elevated ST changes can mimic ACS; the tracing alone cannot exclude ischemia.
Under-triaging a young patient because the ECG is 'only sinus tach with nonspecific changes' misses the acute arrhythmic and pump-failure risk.
New QRS prolongation or AV block signals conduction-system involvement that can progress — do not dismiss it as incidental.
At the Bedside
Treat these ECG changes in the right clinical context (recent viral illness, chest pain, troponin rise) as possible myocarditis: monitor for arrhythmias and conduction block, check cardiac enzymes, and admit for observation given the risk of acute heart failure and shock. Consider ACS in parallel since neither the ST changes nor the presentation reliably distinguish them.
For educational use only. Verify ECG interpretation against the LITFL entry and your institution’s practice before clinical decision-making.
Case of the Day
From the lead · Cerebral Venous Thrombosis
Self-Examination
Test Your Understanding
A 32-year-old woman 2 weeks postpartum develops progressive headache, papilledema, and a focal seizure. CT shows a small hemorrhagic venous infarct; CT venography confirms superior sagittal sinus thrombosis. Which is the best next treatment?
AAspirin only
BTherapeutic anticoagulation
CThrombolysis before anticoagulation in all cases
DLumbar puncture before treatment
Reveal answer
Correct answer · B
Therapeutic anticoagulation. Anticoagulation is indicated in CVT, including when venous infarction contains intracranial hemorrhage, because it prevents thrombus propagation and promotes recanalization. Endovascular therapy is reserved for selected patients who deteriorate despite anticoagulation.
Study Pace4 topics today; Issue 32 of 94 — Neurology (Weeks 17-18 A)Deadline · June 1, 2026